I can't understand it.

  • Posted by a hidden member.
    Log in to view his profile

    May 23, 2011 11:09 AM GMT
    Can't as in Kant, as in Immanuel Kant the philosopher. Get it?

    Anyway, I can't understand Kant.

    How does "objective validity" arise from "subjective conditions of thought?"

    How does it work?

    *I mean, why not ask RJ, we all know Kant was gay.*
    But really, insight on my question.
    I'm not getting this guy.
  • Posted by a hidden member.
    Log in to view his profile

    May 23, 2011 12:16 PM GMT