The Palestine Paradox

  • Posted by a hidden member.
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    Sep 05, 2012 5:15 PM GMT
    1. The Arab narrative claims that after WW I the European/colonial powers, pursuing a policy of "divide & conquer", drew random borders were previously they hadn't existed in the Ottoman Empire (for 400 years and before that).

    2. Then they turn around and claim that these random borders magically delineated an allegedly pre-existing ethnic group - "Palestinians"?

    Which one (or both?) is false?!
  • Posted by a hidden member.
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    Sep 05, 2012 8:06 PM GMT
    Just report Wolverine4 to RJ again.
  • Posted by a hidden member.
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    Sep 05, 2012 10:19 PM GMT
    GalileePAL saidJust report Wolverine4 to RJ again.

    LOL. Looks like I hit a raw nerve.

    Of course, the above is rich coming from IanCT, who just got his account removed after repeatedly calling a fellow RJer a "n**ga".

    The question is one of substance and is just as valid as any of the 10x as many anti-Israel threads posted here.

    It doesn't require powerful critical thinking skills to realize that the real trolls are those who have made personal attacks in an effort to derail/hijack the topic.

    Report them - seems it worked in the case of RLD who I'm told is no longer puking his nonsense all over.


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    Sep 13, 2012 6:33 AM GMT
    So back to the topic:

    If the British (and/or other European/colonial powers) implemented a "divide & conquer" policy by drawing random borders, how is it that these random borders magically delineated a pre-existing ethnic group today known as Palestinians?
  • mwolverine

    Posts: 3386

    Apr 08, 2016 9:24 PM GMT
    GladiatorSam> Golan Heights never was part of Palestine. It was part French mandate of Syria. Under the british mandate, the West of Jordan was called Palestine and east of Jordan was called transjordan.

    The British ceded the Golan from the Mandate of Palestine (which included Trans-jordanian/eastern Palestine) to the French Mandate of Syria.

    But what Sam is actually conceding is that there was no "Palestine" prior to WW I.

    See also:

    Arabs (like Arabic) NOT indigenous to Israel
    http://www.realjock.com/gayforums/4019405

    The Emergence of Palestinian Arab Nationalism
    http://www.realjock.com/gayforums/4193729
  • Posted by a hidden member.
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    Apr 09, 2016 6:48 AM GMT
    Yes there was. Read a history book. Falistin newspaper?
  • mwolverine

    Posts: 3386

    Apr 09, 2016 4:16 PM GMT
    The Falastin (as they spelled it in English) Newspaper originated in 1911. Its founders were supporters of a pan-Arab state. But seriously, this is the sum of the sock puppet's "history"? The name of a newspaper that didn't appear until the 20th century?

    See:

    The Emergence of Palestinian Arab Nationalism
    http://www.realjock.com/gayforums/4193729
  • mwolverine

    Posts: 3386

    Jun 09, 2016 7:54 AM GMT
    AyaTrolLiar founcer spouted
    For the idiot's benefit, I'll point out that al-Lajjun is north of "Samaria"

    It's funny watching the half-wit trying to poke fun and pretend I made a mistake when the idiot hasn't a clue.
    That's the problem with uneducated flunkies, no matter how little they know, they think they know it all, clueless of how much they don't know.

    Let's first review the data:

    Muqaddasi> [985] The District of al-Urdunn. Its capital is Tahariyya [Tveria/Tiberias]. Among its towns are Qadas, Sur [Tyre], Akka [Akko/Acre], al-Lajjun, Kabul, Baysan [Beit She'an]

    Muqaddasi> [985] The District of Filastin. Its capital is al-Ramla. Its towns... Amman.

    Gerber> [1496] It stretched from Anaj, a point near al-Arish, to Lajjun, south of the Esdraelon valley. It was thus clearly equivalent to the Jund Filastin of classical Islam.

    Lajjun was a border town, and that border ran at a 45 degree angle toward Amman
    Thus including Jenin in Urdunn rather than the Filastin District, as well as the other cities listed.
    Haifa, Akka/Akko/Acre, Tzfat/Safed, Tahariyya/Tveria/Tiberias, Jenin, Beit-She'an/Baysan and Nazareth - NOT in Jund Filastin.

    Contemplate the ridiculous claim that Jesus of Nazareth (a Jew from Judea) was "Palestinian".
    Despite dying more than 100 years before the Romans (European occupiers!) renamed Judea as "Palestine".
    And Nazareth NOT being in Jund Filastin, the military district of foreign Arab empires some 1,000 years ago who ruled from afar.

    How did northern Israel become part of "Palestine"?
    Review the OP.


    While the AyaTrolLiar pretends that Jund Filastin wasn't part of Syria (Al Sham), and while he celebrates the title of Muqaddasi's book

    AyaTrolLiar> al-MuqadassI, The Best Divisions for Knowledge of the Regions (interesting title eh?)

    AyaTrolLiar neglects:

    Regions within the Islamic Empire, and "Filastin" isn't a even region but a DISTRICT of Al-Sham (Syria)


    Under the foreign Arab empires who invaded, conquered and occupied the land (ruling it from afar), there was a formal military district called "Filastin" (which was roughly "equivalent" - to use Gerber's word - to today's southern Israel and southern Jordan - including Amman). That ended in the 11th century. Thereafter there was knowledge of this former formal district, in the form of a vague geographic area.

    Today there is a formal "district" in Michigan known as "Wayne County".
    That doesn't mean there is a "Waynist" ethnic group.
    That doesn't mean that in 1,000 years there needs to be a Wayne nation/state distinct from Michigan.
    (Let alone with half of Wayne County excluded, instead including half of Washtenaw County).


    AyaTrolLiar> Jerusalem - Capital Of Palestine

    At the time that there was a formal district of Falastin, its capital was NOT Jerusalem but Ramle.
    (As Muqaddasi notes above.)

    Thereafter, how could Jerusalem be the "capital" of a "district" at a time that the district didn't exist?!

    Never in history was Jerusalem an Arab capital. Not even the "district" capital of foreign Arab empires that invaded, conquered, occupied and colonized the land.