There was no "Israel" before 1948... The land was called Palestine.
Contemplate that prior to the Mandate (to re-establish the jewish state), there was NEVER a "Palestine".
It was just the name of a geographic region describing the Jewish homeland.
(Going back 1,000 years, it was also the name of the military district of a foreign Arab empire that occupied this land and ruled it from afar.)
There has been a "Land of Israel" for at least 3,300 years.
The modern State of Israel was established in 1948.
Before that there was the Palestine Mandate.
It was entrusted to re-establish the Jewish state in the Jewish homeland.
Where Jews had been living, CONTINUOUSLY, for over 3,300 years.
In a land where Jews were the only national group to ever self-govern, locally & independently.
All others, including 4 Arab empires and several other Muslim empires, were foreign occupiers, ruling from afar.http://avalon.law.yale.edu/20th_century/palmanda.asp
Preamble: Whereas recognition has thereby been given to the historical connection of the Jewish people with Palestine and to the grounds for reconstituting their national home IN that country
Article 2: The Mandatory shall be responsible for placing the country under such political, administrative and economic conditions as will secure the establishment of the Jewish national home, as laid down in the preamble, and the development of self-governing institutions
Note that Mandates were training-wheels to establish independent states, not "homelands" or bantustans. The terminology here is in deference to the earlier (1917) Balfour Declaration which used this language. But the intent is clear, to establish Jewish "self-governing institutions" IN (stated 15 times, not "within" as propagandists try to twist) the region. Excluded (by Article 25) was eastern or Trans-Jordanian Palestine, the 80% of the territory that lay east of the Jordan River (Trans-Jordan gained independence as an Arab state in 1946. After invading and conquering Judea & Samaria in 1948, it reunited these regions as its so-called "West Bank" and renamed itself simply as "Jordan". In 1970-71 the PLO attempted to take over Jordan but was defeated and fled to southern Lebanon, leading to that country's civil war.)
Why would the League of Nations call the Jewish state-to-be "Palestine"?!
Because 100 years ago "Palestine" was NOT the name of an Arab country or ethnic group.
It was the Latin/European name for Eretz Yisrael, the Land of Israel.
From the Etymological dictionary, providing the origin of words:
Which is why, into the 1950s, Arab historians and leaders denied that there was such a place as "Palestine" or "Palestinians" - which back then was more likely a reference to Jews living in Mandate Palestine (e.g. the Palestine Mule Corps was composed of Jewish volunteers in the British Army in WW I. The Palestine Post is today Israel's Jerusalem Post. The Palestine Brewery is today Israel's Nesher Beer. The Palestine Brigades were Jewish volunteers in the British Army in WW II. In contrast, the Arabs of Mandate Palestine were represented by the Arab High Committee).
Prior to WW I, for 400 years under the Ottoman Empire and for more than 200 years under the Mamluk Empire, there was no "Palestine" jurisdiction or demography.
All of which has been discussed on RJ in great detail, but evidently GF/GS has nothing new to offer so simply reverts to his prior propaganda pranks."Palestine" is the Latin/European name for Eretz Yisrael, the Jewish homeland
and early 20th century Arab denials of the existence of "Palestine".http://www.realjock.com/gayforums/349491Arabs (like Arabic) NOT indigenous to Israelhttp://www.realjock.com/gayforums/4019405The Palestine Paradoxhttp://www.realjock.com/gayforums/2652202The Emergence of Palestinian Arab Nationalismhttp://www.realjock.com/gayforums/4193729Jerusalemhttp://www.realjock.com/gayforums/8877471947-1948: Arabs reject compromise and attack Israelhttp://www.realjock.com/gayforums/960691